Why did God allow polygamy in the Bible?





Comments
  1. They were in his Word in ALL-TRUTH! What is truth said Pilate. That you Love the Lord your God Creator of Heaven and earth and all that is in it. That you love one another especially your wife or in ancient days before the perversion of sex and men and women, you love your wives as you would yourself. With no malice, evil, lies, forcing, raping etc. Today society has been programmed ( like how men program algorithms, the ones not for good yet to control the mind and the body) by an evil spirit you know its name mention in the book of truth. That is why it is wickedly and with evil in its heart jealous of The Lord’s Champion because he “ The LORD’s Champion has ALL-GOOD FOR WOMAN EQUALLY NO MATTER WHAT” and the evil spirit and his followers mostly men in high places do not have that in their hearts for women that is why they are to busy looking at me and trying to find fault . Yet the Father knows ALL-THINGSand I trust him with my heart.

  2. Thank you for clearing up my understanding. I was just discussing this with a friend. I knew it was done in the Bible day and is still going on today. People today believe it is okay but it was never the will of God from the beginning. I know they are taking the scriptures out of context to use for their gain without doing full research. God Bless You!

  3. Love this videos! Thank you! Maybe for 2020, have them translated or done by Spanish speaking professors, please!

  4. An excellent book addressing this question (and others) is Is God a Moral Monster?, by Paul Copan.
    Blessings from México 🇲🇽😊

  5. This all thing started from the son of Cain, Lamech (Not Lamech the son of Methuselah son of Seth). Lamech from the son of Cain, took two wives which was against God's plan. It's in Genesis Ch 4 v19.

  6. David punishment was not for having many wives ! It was for coveting , lying, an adulatory, and murder , cuz Nathan told him if you wanted more all you had to do was ask ? Salomon was punished for burning an incense to another God !

  7. Yet in ALL-TRUTH, GOD gave Adam one helper to be his wife and the two ( not 3,4,5 etc.) to become one liken to how the true people of God should be one in ALL-TRUTH with God’s Son mentioned in scripture ( The Word of God) Yet mankind rebelled and God worked with them the best way he knew how and by choice mankind ( learning and striving in the battle called life after the fall, to seek ALL-TRUT) either sought after him amongst their human flaws or they rejected him outright and gave themselves over to wickedness and evil in the ways God hates according to Proverbs 6:16-19.

  8. Although there are many good things in this recording, too bad the issue is not really searched out, and the crux of it is not there…
    Is it only a matter of distinguishing “between what God does command and how his people actually behave”? Granted, in the history the Bible retraces for us, “we see a constant violation of the original standard”. But we cannot skip over the details and stick to the general synopsis, thus avoiding the main question: is polygyny* (to give it its proper name) a sin, or is it not?

    * according to Myriam Webster's definition, “the state or practice of having more than one wife or female mate at a time”

    "Art thou not from everlasting, O LORD my God, mine Holy One? … O LORD, … O mighty God, … Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity…” (Habakkuk 1:12-13)
    Simply evading the difficulty under the banner of such excuse as God's tolerance and benevolence won't do. Too often we hear those words: It's not how God would have man to live but, you know, God shows understanding towards man, even when those people do not understand His will and plan, and when they are not really up to the standard…” (which one? my tradition? God's?) Since when, pray tell, has God become tolerant with sin? When exactly did He began to turn a blind eye to it? See Exodus 23:7, 34:7 or Numbers 14:18. And at what time did he take to the practicing of fornication? One is well advised to carefully mull over it before speaking for God.

    For sure, Solomon having seven hundred wives and three hundred concubines is neither good nor reasonable. But the fact remains that it is written (a verse among several others), “Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, … And I [the LORD God!] GAVE THEE [David]… thy master's wiveS [in addition to the ones you already had] into thy bosom, …” (2 Samuel 12:7-8)?
    Now, as to poygyny, of two things one: it is a sin (either adultery or fornication or else), or it is not a sin.
    IF IT IS, how comes we never see in the scriptures God holding it against those (actually quite a lot of people!) that had multiple wifes (not even Solomon)? And how comes God Himself gives the wrong example, as we can read with the two sisters of Ezekiel 23? And especially, as shown in the verse here above quoted, how is it that God Himself directly had David (a man after His own heart, not some son of Belial which God intended to destroy) commit sin when He, God (no one else), gave him all the wifes that Saul had? Actually, the exact same verse (1 Kings 11:4) which tells us of Solomon's wives turning away his heart after other gods, which heart was not perfect with the LORD his God, states that if Solomon's was not, David's heart was perfect before the LORD. “And Solomon … went not fully after the LORD, as did David his father (who nevertheless had several wives, as we read).” (1 Kings 11:6)
    And finally (to limit the comment to a reasonable length), how is it that God Himself in the law of Moses not only regulated the “sin” of taking a second wife (Exodus 21:10), but even commanded that such “sin” (?) be committed (Deuteronomy 25:5)??
    Shall we say that, with God, what is condemned as sin on one day can be admitted on another day, under God's tolerance? Or shall we declare that there were times when God was cool and conciliatory with regard to sin? Apparently, polygyny was still practiced in the first century AD (1 Timothy 3:2, 12; Titus 1:6), and in the church (!). Whether the English word, “one”, or the Greek word, “mia”, should be understood as signifying only one (wife), or at least one, I don't in any case read any condemnation of the practice of polygyny in the word of God. Do you?
    On the other hand, IF POLYGYNY IS NOT A SIN, why (since God is the One who commanded, “Thou shalt not commit adultery”, and had His apostle write time and again against fornication: 1Corinthians 6:18; 10:8; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonicians 4:3, to reference only a few)?

  9. I'm sorry to say this, but this video contains a factual error. Royal figures were NOT the only ones who had multiple wives. In the book of Samuel we read of Samuel's parents. His father had two wives, and was as far from sitting on the throne as you can get. Jacob and Esau were never royal figures, yet both practiced polygymy. It does seem to be a taboo by the time of Jesus, but it was not just restricted to kings.

  10. Thank you Dr Gentry! “They were examples of Faith not examples of morality”…that explains Samson and Jepthah being named in the famous Hebrews Chapter 11 Hall of Faith chapter…I have always been puzzled by this? How could Samson (his lifestyle) and Jepthah (sacrificing his daughter) be in this faith chapter.

  11. What do we do with Exodus where laws are given about providing for a second wife in the same way as the first wife? God didn’t give laws to regulate behavior he disapproved of. God clearly condoned polygamy in Exodus, and the “only for Kings” argument is not supported by Scripture.

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